Originally posted by Abu Sulayman
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Salamun 'alaykum,
I'm a little bit surprised to see you saying this, son. Are you putting a faulty reasoning / analogy - or let's say faulty Qiyas! - above what the Prophet - sallallahu 'alayhi wa sallam - teached (!) and this with the knowledge that there is NOTHING in his statement that indicates specification, but rather the opposite!
Who decides which supplication is superior and which not and this while both supplications are said by yourself and the One asked is the same?
Then: There is actually a difference between Tawassul bil Dhawat (Tawassul through selves) and the asking for supplication, because in the latter you're asking the creation to supplicate for you while in the first you're supplicating to Allah ta'ala yourself and only using their self (Dhat) as means to one's Lord and this due to their high rank and status! (Both is allowed.)
Now the faulty reasoning given does not apply to Tawassul bil Dhawat in any way or form, because you're not asking for supplication in the very first place!
There is a famous incident that proves silent consensus (Ijma' sukuti) among the Sahabat al-kiram - radhiallahu 'anhum ajma'in - on the issue of Tawassul bil Dhat:
It's reported in Sahih al-Bukhari 2/27 that when there would be a drought 'Umar bin al-Khattab - radhiallahu 'anhu - would use the following supplication upon which they would receive rain (translation taken from this artice: "Tawassul of `Umar through al-`Abbas (Allah be pleased with them)"):
اللَّهُمَّ إِنَّا كُنَّا نَتَوَسَّلُ إِلَيْكَ بِنَبِيِّنَا فَتَسْقِينَا، وَإِنَّا نَتَوَسَّلُ إِلَيْكَ بِعَمِّ نَبِيِّنَا فَاسْقِنَا
"O Allah! We would use our Prophet as a means to You and You then sent us rain; now we use our Prophet's uncle as a means to You, therefore send us rain!"
- end of quote -
Note that this supplication was done in front of the Sahaba and not a single one of them objected to this, radhiallahu 'anhum ajma'in. So this proves that Tawassul bil Dhawat was accepted by ALL of them!
It it is claimed "this applies only to the living and not those who have passed away" (while forgetting that one has claimed Tawassul to be an innovation in the first place!), the answer is:
For you to have a point - even if only a very weak one - the wording would have to be something like "now we request our Prophet's uncle to ask You for rain" (which is how "Salafis" - in their dishonesty - translate the above statement!), but the Arabic wording is clearly stating "now we use our Prophet's unlce as a means to You" ("wa inna NATAWASSALU ilayka bi 'ammi nabiyyina").
So here 'Umar bin al-Khattab - radhiallahu 'anhu - was LITERALLY AND EXPLICITLY doing Tawassul bil Dhat with al-'Abbas, radhiallahu 'anhu!
Note that he doesn't even say "we use al-'Abbas", but rather "we use our Prophet's uncle", so the issue is based upon Tawassul with the Prophet - sallallahu 'alayhi wa sallam - in the very first place!
If I don't do it, am I sinful?
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