Assalamu Alaikum,
My wife and I have not neither have sexual intercourse with each other after marriage neither have been in complete seclusion. But we did sit in a place with each other for 4 hours or so and had touched each others body sexually and thoroughly. Now if I divorce her, will she have to count iddah or waiting period?

O you who have believed, when you marry the believing women, and then divorce them before you have touched them, they do not have to fulfil a waiting term, whose completion you may demand of them; so provide them with something and send them off gracefully(Al Ahzab 33:49)

Please give your opinions as soon as possible, really need to know. Thanks.