Okay, as everyone says these days, there is a lot of misunderstanding in Islam, and mistranslations in the Quran.
If anyone can explain, what I do not get is, why they say it is permissible to have sex with slaves? Isn't that zina? I would rather not even know if my husband is sleeping around then to let him have sex with 20 slaves right in my home. Seriously, is that LOGIC or what? It doesn't even sound Islamic yet that's what Scholars claim. Islam is the most beautiful and purest religion which gives rights to both, not allow men to treat women like objects.
I think either scholars or someone is not explaining things properly here. Read this islam qa for example: http://www.islam-qa.com/en/ref/10382
That is utterly disgusting. From what I read "slaves whom your right hand possesses" is actually mistranslated, and it means that "an oath that you have took" ie: to protect the slaves.
If islam supposedly allowed sex with slaves without marriage, and up to 4 wives, but you can have as many as slaves as you want, what's the point in that? wouldnt the slave women's children become ...... illegitimate children? Islam strongly commands a man and woman to do a waleema for their nikah so everyone will know they are married and will not gossip or talk. This is to show their marriage is legitimate, so whats the deal with imams claiming men can impregnant slaves? Then that is CLEARLY zina....