Hasan2004
16-11-04, 09:38 AM
Fathom,
You mentioned that during the Day of Judgment according to the Bible(or Christian doctrine or your understanding) that the events of "Rapture" and Judgement Day is simultaneous.
The Book of Revelation mentions TWO resurrections and NOT ONE.
The period between the two resurrections is called: "Thousand Year Reign".
As for the length of Judgment Day. This day according to my understanding of reading Islamic texts is a long stretched Day(Time) because then DAY and NIGHT will no longer exist. This understanding is also expressed in Jewish sources which have interpreted the SIX days of creation as a Thousand Years or more. I believe that it is located in 2nd Peter also(supposedly written by Peter). So, this is my explanation of the Day of Judgment where the DAY(or Time) is stretched so everyone will be Judged accordingly.
(Sorry, I had to explain some things in one paragraph above)
Therefore, it is possible for Allah(Subhana wa Ta'ala) to Judge everyone and everything (In Islam, all things are judged and not just human beings).
The "Thousand Year Reign" is definately a flaw. However, you have expressed that the Book of Revelation is an agnostic manual which suggests that the Book of Revelation could not be taken literally.
If this is the case; then the question arises what is the meaning by the writer,John, to state a "Thousand Year Reign" in his book?
During the "Thousand Year Reign", Gog and Magog is also mentioned between this period and to include nations going back to war against towards the earthly city. If the believers of Christ(Christians) are in spiritual bodies why are they worried about PHYSICAL ENEMIES attacking the holy city?
Fathom;
I would also like to give another observation,
My theory is that Paul rewrote the 4 Gospels. The appearant evidence is the language used for the 4 Gospels which is KOINE GREEK.
My question is simply, why was KOINE GREEK in the original four gospels used when it is known that Jesus(pbuh) spoke in Aramaic and possibly Hebrew and wrote in Hebrew?
I am sure that Jesus(pbuh) was exposed to Hebrew,Aramaic and possibly Latin. When Jesus(pbuh) spoke to the Pharasees and other Jewish groups I am sure he spoke Hebrew because that is the language of the Torah and Talmud.
My conclusion is simply, the 4 gospels are not reliable source of information since it is possible that Paul rewrote them to fit his doctrine of trinity and "original sin"( The evidence against "original sin" is EZEKIEL 18:20-23, given and explained by a Jewish follower on this forum called HISTORY ) because of the language used was/is KOINE GREEK rather than the original language of Jesus(pbuh). It is also evident that the 4 gospels were written 60 or 70 years later.
Hasan
You mentioned that during the Day of Judgment according to the Bible(or Christian doctrine or your understanding) that the events of "Rapture" and Judgement Day is simultaneous.
The Book of Revelation mentions TWO resurrections and NOT ONE.
The period between the two resurrections is called: "Thousand Year Reign".
As for the length of Judgment Day. This day according to my understanding of reading Islamic texts is a long stretched Day(Time) because then DAY and NIGHT will no longer exist. This understanding is also expressed in Jewish sources which have interpreted the SIX days of creation as a Thousand Years or more. I believe that it is located in 2nd Peter also(supposedly written by Peter). So, this is my explanation of the Day of Judgment where the DAY(or Time) is stretched so everyone will be Judged accordingly.
(Sorry, I had to explain some things in one paragraph above)
Therefore, it is possible for Allah(Subhana wa Ta'ala) to Judge everyone and everything (In Islam, all things are judged and not just human beings).
The "Thousand Year Reign" is definately a flaw. However, you have expressed that the Book of Revelation is an agnostic manual which suggests that the Book of Revelation could not be taken literally.
If this is the case; then the question arises what is the meaning by the writer,John, to state a "Thousand Year Reign" in his book?
During the "Thousand Year Reign", Gog and Magog is also mentioned between this period and to include nations going back to war against towards the earthly city. If the believers of Christ(Christians) are in spiritual bodies why are they worried about PHYSICAL ENEMIES attacking the holy city?
Fathom;
I would also like to give another observation,
My theory is that Paul rewrote the 4 Gospels. The appearant evidence is the language used for the 4 Gospels which is KOINE GREEK.
My question is simply, why was KOINE GREEK in the original four gospels used when it is known that Jesus(pbuh) spoke in Aramaic and possibly Hebrew and wrote in Hebrew?
I am sure that Jesus(pbuh) was exposed to Hebrew,Aramaic and possibly Latin. When Jesus(pbuh) spoke to the Pharasees and other Jewish groups I am sure he spoke Hebrew because that is the language of the Torah and Talmud.
My conclusion is simply, the 4 gospels are not reliable source of information since it is possible that Paul rewrote them to fit his doctrine of trinity and "original sin"( The evidence against "original sin" is EZEKIEL 18:20-23, given and explained by a Jewish follower on this forum called HISTORY ) because of the language used was/is KOINE GREEK rather than the original language of Jesus(pbuh). It is also evident that the 4 gospels were written 60 or 70 years later.
Hasan